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Sign of Mahar-Shalal-Hash-Baz?

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Messenger: R.E.P. Sent: 1/25/2007 1:46:47 AM
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Peace bredrin Dreadnut,

I have only posted a few times here on JAH-RasTafai.But I would just like to issue one point in response to the scripture you quoted regarding virginity.

When you state about Dinah being violated.Truly that is very true.The biblical references very much support that statement.When Levi proclaims to Jacob saying"Through you the Lord will bring the Canaanites to nothingand will give their land to you and your descendants after you.For from this day forward.Shechem shall be called"City of the Senseless," because as one might scoff at a fool, so we scoffed at them, because by defiling my sister they committed folly in Isreal, and we left there and came to Bethel. Testament Of Levi in the Testament of the Twelve Patriarchs chapter 7 verse 1-4.

Defiling,violating even profaning yes. But I definitely disagree to go so far and presume that that would also include to say that Dinah is no longer a virgin because of the violence inflicted upon her by some "senseless heathen".

It may be to some semantics.Differentiating between being defiled and
losing ones virginity.But I believe that confusing the two can possibly lead to a very dangerous mentality.Just I opinion.

All Raspect due!!


Messenger: R.E.P. Sent: 1/25/2007 3:16:19 AM
Reply

Sorry for the double posting.


Messenger: Dreadnut Sent: 1/25/2007 4:43:45 AM
Reply

Well sure, I'll go with that for arguement sake. But my main point especially with the quote from Proverbs, is that if Christian missionaries are going to say that 'almah' means virgin only in Isaiah 7:4, then it has to mean that every seven times it appears in the Bible. If this is inconsistent then we can not boldly assume that virginity is what the writer implies. Also friend, take note that Isaiah only used the word 'almah' once through out his entire book in which it refers to a young woman. We know this because Isaiah does make specific reference to virgins five times Isaiah (23:4; 23:12; 37:22; 47:1; 62:5), and he uses the word betulah, which specifically implies virginity and not youth. If the prophet Isaiah wanted to make it clear that the prophecy was about a child being born from a virgin, he should have used the same word betulah that specifically means virgin, just like he did the other five times.

In the end, its all love...

Peace


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